1) How are fleas transmitted between hosts?
A) via direct transmission
B) via an intermediate vector
C) through multiple hosts
D) via water
2) Which of the following transmission modes is available for
plants?
A) direct
B) intermediate vector
C) multiple hosts and stages
D) all of the above
3) Which of the following uses a mosquito as a vector?
A) Anopholes
B) Parelaphostrongylus
C) Plasmodium
D) Borrelia
4) Following infection, a typical first-line defense of the
host’s immune system is
A) reduction in white blood cell count.
B) release of antibodies.
C) forming cysts.
D) inflammation.
5) Which of the following is a potential response by a plant
host to a parasite?
A) formation of a gall
B) allelopathy
C) increased production of lymphocytes
D) more rapid growth of tissues
6) Communities with low evenness will have rank-abundance
curves
A) that are very steep.
B) that are 1:1.
C) that are very shallow.
D) that are flat.
7) The relative abundance of a tree with 100 individuals in a
community of 1000 would be
A) 10.
B) 1.
C) 0.1.
D) 100.
8) Which description is true for most communities?
A) All species have approximately equal abundances.
B) All species are rare.
C) All species are common.
D) A few species are common and the remainder are rare.
9) Dominant species tend to be more abundant than other species
because they
A) prey upon or parasitize other species.
B) outcompete other species.
C) are preyed upon less than other species.
D) reproduce more rapidly than other species.
10) A species that has massive effects on an ecosystem but in
proportion to its abundance is a
A) keystone species.
B) basal species.
C) dominant species.
D) top predator.
11) What might one expect to see in a graph depicting realized
niche space in a community?
A) one dominant species utilizing all of the resources
B) large overlap between species resource use
C) reduced overlap between species resource use
D) each species utilizing its full resources
12) In looking at a distribution map you see an empty space
where habitat conditions are suitable for that species. Why might
that exist?
A) Other species outcompete it in that space.
B) That species prefers other areas.
C) The species has a limit to population growth.
D) The space is due to the null model.
13) Which of the following is evidence against the null
model?
A) Bristlecone pine trees can survive harsh winters.
B) Climate change alters abundance of robins.
C) Invasive species cause California newts to go locally
extinct.
D) Hurricanes can wipe out fauna on an island.
14) In aquatic environments, the three major environmental
gradients of water that directly influence the distribution and
dynamics of communities include
A) temperature, depth, and oxygen content.
B) depth, flow rate, and salinity.
C) pressure, temperature, and depth.
D) flow rate, salinity, and oxygen content.
15) What happens to the species Chthamalus
stellatus when Balanus balanoides is
removed from the lower intertidal zone?
A) Chthamalus is able to survive in the lower
intertidal zone.
B) Chthamalus survives worse.
C) Balanus switches habitat to the upper intertidal
zone.
D) There is no change in distribution for either species.
16) Plants assimilate energy through the process of
A) decomposition.
B) respiration.
C) photosynthesis.
D) regeneration.
17) What level of productivity would one predict with high
levels of water supply but low temperatures?
A) very low
B) low
C) high
D) very high
18) Which factor is the primary control of productivity in
aquatic systems?
A) temperature
B) precipitation
C) light
D) salinity
19) The river continuum concept suggests that one of the
following is higher in headwater streams.
A) autochthonous carbon
B) allochthonous carbon
C) phytoplankton abundance
D) macrophyte abundance
20) Where are the areas of highest NPP?
A) equator
B) arctic
C) temperate region
D) Saharan desert
21)Which of the following are decomposers?
A) mushrooms
B) mites
C) millipedes
D) all of the above
22) When calculating leaf litter decomposition, what must be
taken into account?
A) carbon uptake by leaf
B) mass added by decomposers like fungi
C) waste from earthworms
D) water reuptake by the tree
23) The uptake of minerals by decomposers is referred to as
A) mineralization.
B) immobilization.
C) net mineralization rate.
D) decomposition.
24) The process of conversion of nutrients from an organic form
into an inorganic form that plants can use is called
A) immobilization.
B) respiration.
C) transpiration.
D) mineralization.
25) How can minerals captured via immobilization be released
back into the soil?
A) via microbivores
B) via fungal absorption of minerals
C) via herbivores
D) via plant reuptake
26) Which of the following cycles have particles deposit from
the atmosphere in both a dryfall and a wetfall?
A) nitrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) sulfur
27) Which of the following contains the most nutrients?
A) dryfall
B) wetfall in an open prairie
C) wetfall on a forest floor
D) wetfall in the ocean
28) Biogeochemical cycles should be regarded
A) primarily within a terrestrial ecosystem.
B) primarily within an oceanic ecosystem.
C) primarily linking terrestrial and oceanic ecosystems.
D) with a global perspective.
29) Which of the following nutrients is most closely linked to
the energy cycle in ecosystems?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) lead
D) sulfur
30) The source of all carbon in living organisms is
A) simple sugars.
B) carbon dioxide from atmosphere and water.
C) carbon-fixing bacteria.
D) sedimentary rocks.





