Basic
Pharmacology     Final Examination

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE.

_____1. The clinical effectiveness of a drug majorly depends
on:  a. Clearance b. Potency  c. Affinity to
receptors  d. Half-life  

_____2. Parasympathetic effect of halting or stopping the
sympathetic effects in the body is an example of this type of
antagonism  a. Competitive  b.
Functional  c. Physiologic  d. Non
competitive

_____3. This is the initial dose given to the patient to achieve
therapeutic level/range rapidly. a. Loading dose  b.
Maintenance dose  c. Maximum daily dose  d.
Increasing dose  

_____4. A drug that does not produce maximal effect even when
all the receptors are occupied is a:  a. Full
agonist  b. Partial agonist  c. Weak
agonist  d. Antagonist  

_____5. A drug that produces maximal effects even when only some
of the receptors are occupied a. Partial agonist b. Weak agonist c.
Strong agonist d. Partial antagonist

Philippine Rehabilitation Institute Foundation, PRI College of
Sciences

_____6. Ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its
concentration in the blood. a. Bioavailability b. Clearance c.
Volume of distribution d. Metabolism

_____7. Ratio of the amount of a drug in the body to its
concentration in the blood. a. Bioavailability b.
Clearance  c. Volume of distribution  d.
Excretion

_____8. For a drug with high first pass effect, which of the
following dosage forms should be avoided?  a. Oral
tablet  b. Sublingual tablet  c. Transdermal
preparation  d. Rectal suppository  

_____9. Drug X has an elimination half life of 80 hours and oral
bioavailability of 100%. After oral administration, the steady
state concentration is expected to be attained in:  a. 8
days  b. 4 days  c. 10 days  d. 14
days

_____10. Time it takes a drug to begin working a. Duration b.
Onset c. Rate of absorption d. Half life   _____11.
This is a type of drug metabolism wherein the drug is reduced or
oxidized through the use of a polar group.  a. Phase I
reaction b. Phase II reaction c. Phase III reaction d. Liver
microsomal drug oxidation/reduction

_____12. This is a type III AED.  a.
Phenytoin  b. Phenobarbital  c.
Ethosuximide  d. Valproic acid

_____13. These are all direct sympathomimetic non catecholamines
except: a. Phenylephrine b. Albuterol c. Terbutaline d.
Dopamine

_____14. These are all direct sympathomimetic catecholamines
except: a. Phenylephrine b. Epinephrine c. Dobutamine d.
Dopamine

_____15. Which anti Parkinson drug is used as an adjunct to
Levodopa a. Bromocriptine b. Carbidopa c. Amantadine d.
Pergolide

_____16. This type of AED acts on the body through reduction of
Na+ current. a. Type I AED b. Type II AED c. Type III AED d. Type
IV AED

_____17. This type of AED acts on the body through enhancing
post-synaptic GABA receptor current, usefulness is limited by
sedation and development of tolerance a. Type I AED b. Type II AED
c. Type III AED d. Type IV AED

_____18. This drug used for treating hypertension acts by
blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a
vasoconstrictor. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. calcium channel
blocker c. ACEi d. digitalis

_____19. This drug used in treating angina acts by dilating the
blood vessel. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. nitroglycerin c.
calcium channel blocker d. ACEi

_____20. This is a cardiac glycoside which affects the
electrical and mechanical actions of the heart which increases
contractility. a. beta adrenergic blocker b. calcium channel
blocker c. digitalis d. ACEi

_____21. One of the primary goals in treating myocardial infarct
is: a. reducing the work load of heart b. dilate the blood vessels
c. decreasing HR and contractility of the heart d. reperfusing
ischemic tissue.

_____22. This drug contributes in treating heart failure by
reducing blood volume. a. beta adrenergic blockers b. calcium
channel blocker c. digitalis d. diuretics

_____23. This type of diuretic primarily reabsorbs sodium and
chloride in the loop of Henle and proximal and distal tubules. a.
Mannitol b. Loop diuretics c. Thiazide diuretics d. K+ sparing
diuretics

_____24. This drug has better bioavailability compared to
gabapentin  a. Tizidine  b.
Lorazepam  c. Baclofen  d. Pregabalin

_____25. This is the first line drug for acute
gout  a. Corticosteroids  b.
Chloroquine  c. NSAIDs  d.
Coxibs  

_____26. This has the very little anti inflammatory effect or
none at all.  a. Coxibs  b.
Acetaminophen  c. ASA  d. t-NSAIDs

_____27. This drug inhibits xanthine oxidase in the use for
acute gout  a. Probenecid  b.
Sulfinpyrazone  c. Allopurinol  d.
t-NSAIDs  

_____28. This drug weakly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 causing poor
anti-inflammatory effect.  a. t-NSAIDs  b.
acetaminophen  c. corticosteroids  d.
DMARDs  

_____29. This traditional NSAID may also be used for the closure
of a patent ductus arteriosus. a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c.
indomethacin d. naproxen

_____30. This traditional NSAID may also be used for moderate to
severe pain and as an alternative for opioid therapy a. ketorolac
b. mefenamic acid c. indomethacin d. naproxen  _____31.
This traditional NSAID has no clear advantage over other NSAIDs and
frequently causes GIT symptoms a. ketorolac b. mefenamic acid c.
indomethacin d. naproxen

_____32. This drug is COX 2 selective. a. ketorolac b. mefenamic
acid c. indomethacin d. celecoxib    

_____33. This drug is a cardio protective agent and used as a
maintenance drug. a. mefenamic acid b. paracetamol c. aspirin d.
celecoxib

_____34. All of the following are true regarding the extent of
absorption except: a. site of administration b. potency c. clinical
effectiveness d. bioavailability

_____35. The steady state is reached after: a. 2 to 3 half lives
b. 3 to 4 half lives c. 4 to 5 half lives d. 5 to 6 half lives

_____36. This phase in drug elimination uses a polar group a.
Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV

_____37. The process in which the drug is reabsorbed from the
liver circulation is called a. Bioavailability b. First pass effect
c. Enterohepatic circulation d. Recirculation

_____38. All are included in the components of drug receptor
interaction except: a. Receptors largely determine the quantitative
relations between dose of drug and pharmacologic
effects.  b. Receptors are responsible for selectivity of
drug action. c. Receptors mediate the actions of both pharmacologic
agonists and antagonists. d. Receptors mediates the process of
bioavailability

______39. The process wherein the drug competes with the normal
substrate or coenzyme so that a new equilibrium is achieved in the
presence of the drug is called a. Specific competitive equilibrium
b. Non specific competitive equilibrium c. Specific non competitive
equilibrium d. Specific competitive non equilibrium

______40. All are included in the process of receptor signalling
except a. Recognition of signal by receptors b. Transduction of
message c. Transmission of second messenger d. Modulation of
receptors

______41. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of the
other is a type of drug interaction. a. Addition b. Synergism c.
Potentiation d. Antagonist

______42. A drug which causes minimal effects even if all
receptors are occupied is called a. Strong agonist b. Weak agonist
c. Partial agonist d. Antagonist

______43. This inhibit or block responses caused by agonists a.
Strong agonist b. Weak agonist c. Partial agonist d. Antagonist

______44. This occurs when a patient needs a drug to function
normally a. Tolerance b. Dependence c. Withdrawal d. Addiction

______45. When the beta adrenergic 1 receptor is stimulated,
this is not elicited a. Increase HR b. Increase BP c. Decrease
contractility d. Increase inotropicity